OMath!
Prove that $f_n(x)\rightrightarrows 0$ in $[0,+\infty)$, where $f_n(x)=\frac{x-x^2}{1+x^n}$ - Printable Version

+- OMath! (http://math.elinkage.net)
+-- Forum: Math Forums (/forumdisplay.php?fid=4)
+--- Forum: Analysis (/forumdisplay.php?fid=10)
+--- Thread: Prove that $f_n(x)\rightrightarrows 0$ in $[0,+\infty)$, where $f_n(x)=\frac{x-x^2}{1+x^n}$ (/showthread.php?tid=723)



Prove that $f_n(x)\rightrightarrows 0$ in $[0,+\infty)$, where $f_n(x)=\frac{x-x^2}{1+x^n}$ - elim - 03-11-2017 12:39 AM

($\rightrightarrows$ means uniformly converging) src